I agree with the gist of this article.
One thing that really concerns me though is that a woman is considered not to be able to give consent if she is drunk because she is not competent, wouldn't the same logic excuse the male who is also drunk because he too is not competent? I am not proposing this is the case, I am just noticing a double standard in how we apply the principles of personal responsibility!
Looking forward to some stimulating responses!
Monday, April 19, 2010
When is it politically correct to use alcohol as an excuse?
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